Download Pretest for EMT Recertification

Name: __________________________ Date: _____________
1. When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should
position the ambulance:
A) 50 past the scene on the opposite side of the road.
B) 100 past the scene on the same side of the road.
C) 50 before the scene on the same side of the road.
D) alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).
2. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are
typically regulated by the:
A) state office of EMS.
B) regional trauma center.
C) American Heart Association.
D) National Registry of EMTs.
3. Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:
A) move the patient to a safe area.
B) avoid contaminating yourself.
C) decontaminate the patient's skin.
D) obtain and maintain a patent airway.
4. Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment
of a toddler:
A) at the feet.
B) at the head.
C) in the ambulance.
D) en route to the hospital.
5. To obtain the MOST accurate reading of a patient's core body temperature, you should
place a special hypothermia thermometer:
A) into the patient's rectum.
B) under the patient's tongue.
C) behind the patient's knee.
D) under the patient's armpit.
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6. Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:
A) falls and motor vehicle collisions.
B) low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls.
C) gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections.
D) motor vehicle collisions and stabbings.
7. Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:
A) plasma.
B) platelets.
C) whole blood.
D) red blood cells.
8. Peritonitis may result in shock because:
A) intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present.
B) fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.
C) abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions.
D) severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature.
9. During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note paradoxical
movement of the left chest wall. As your partner is administering oxygen to the patient,
you should:
A) request a paramedic to decompress the chest.
B) make note of it and continue your assessment.
C) stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing.
D) reassess the adequacy of the patient's breathing.
10. The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or
traumatic in origin is to:
A) perform a careful and thorough assessment.
B) establish the patient's medical history early.
C) take note of the patient's general appearance.
D) ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient.
11. The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the left ventricles.
A) apex
B) base
C) dorsum
D) septum
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12. Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of
the following, EXCEPT:
A) the speed of the fall.
B) the surface struck.
C) the height of the fall.
D) the primary impact point.
13. In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious
patient should involve:
A) palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking
capillary refill time.
B) taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or
confused.
C) applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is
adequate.
D) checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of his or
her skin.
14. Patients develop septic shock secondary to:
A) poor vessel function and severe volume loss.
B) an infection that weakens cardiac contractions.
C) failure of the blood vessels to adequately dilate.
D) weak vessel tone due to nervous system damage.
15. The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is:
A) lactic acid.
B) pyruvic acid.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) adenosine triphosphate.
16. A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n):
A) abrasion.
B) contusion.
C) hematoma.
D) crush injury.
17. Organic brain syndrome is MOST accurately defined as:
A) bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.
B) a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
C) a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ.
D) a change in behavior or mental status secondary to inadequate cerebral blood flow.
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18. The energy of a moving object is called:
A) latent energy.
B) kinetic energy.
C) potential energy.
D) converted energy.
19. Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
A) cyanosis
B) headache
C) tachycardia
D) hypertension
20. You are transporting a 40-year-old male with respiratory distress. The patient tells you
that he recently had a positive tuberculosis (TB) skin test and is currently being
evaluated for possible TB. You should:
A) apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air
(HEPA) respirator on yourself.
B) remain at least 3 feet away from the patient and apply a surgical mask on him.
C) apply a sterile surgical mask on yourself and a HEPA respirator on the patient.
D) apply a nasal cannula on the patient and a sterile surgical mask on yourself.
21. The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s)
from the __________.
A) coronary sinus, vena cava
B) aorta, inferior vena cava
C) vena cava, coronary veins
D) coronary arteries, aorta
22. Status epilepticus is characterized by:
A) generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes.
B) an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura.
C) profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity.
D) prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.
23. The secondary assessment of a medical patient:
A) should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe.
B) should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill.
C) is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
D) is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.
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24. To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should always:
A) transport patients to the hospital of their choice.
B) provide competent care that meets current standards.
C) use universal precautions with every patient encounter.
D) utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient.
25. After taking diphendydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins
experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n):
A) side effect.
B) untoward effect.
C) therapeutic effect.
D) unpredictable effect.
26. Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include:
A) headache and edema.
B) marked hypoglycemia.
C) dyspnea and bradycardia.
D) dysuria and constipation.
27. Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age
group?
A) Secondary sexual development begins.
B) Muscle and bone growth both decrease.
C) The normal pulse rate steadily increases.
D) The systolic blood pressure decreases.
28. Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than
______ of his or her total blood volume.
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
29. The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or “labeling” a patient who frequently
calls EMS is:
A) overlooking a potentially serious medical condition.
B) making the entire EMS system look unprofessional.
C) demeaning or humiliating the patient and his family.
D) discouraging the patient from calling EMS in the future.
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30. When caring for a geriatric patient with a traumatic injury, it is important to consider
that:
A) geriatric patients usually present with little to no pain.
B) decreased bone density often results in incomplete fractures.
C) the injury may have been preceded by a medical condition.
D) geriatric patients typically present with classic signs of shock.
31. Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:
A) 98°F (37°C).
B) 95°F (35°C).
C) 90°F (32°C).
D) 88°F (31°C).
32. You are dispatched to a middle school for a 16-year-old female experiencing an asthma
attack. She is conscious and alert, but in severe respiratory distress. The school nurse
informs you that she has tried several times to contact the patient's parents but has not
been successful. You should:
A) provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once.
B) recognize that you cannot begin treatment without expressed parental consent.
C) transport the child to the closest hospital and let them provide any treatment.
D) administer oxygen only until you receive parental consent for further treatment.
33. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of
consciousness?
A) drug overdose
B) inadequate perfusion
C) acute anxiety
D) poisoning
34. What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
A) vomitus
B) the tongue
C) blood clots
D) aspirated fluid
35. An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if:
A) the patient is currently experiencing hypotension.
B) authorization from medical control has been obtained.
C) transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes.
D) the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke.
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36. Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as:
A) low venous oxygen levels.
B) a decrease in arterial oxygen levels.
C) an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood.
D) inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.
37. A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
A) total loss of function in a bone.
B) break in the continuity of the bone.
C) disruption in the midshaft of a bone.
D) abnormality in the structure of a bone.
38. Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct?
A) Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis.
B) Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension.
C) Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes after exposure.
D) The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.
39. The eyeball itself is referred to as the:
A) orbit.
B) globe.
C) sclera.
D) cornea.
40. The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the:
A) cerebellum and brain.
B) brain and spinal cord.
C) cerebrum and meninges.
D) meninges and spinal cord.
41. In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system:
A) prepares the body to handle stress.
B) causes an increase in the heart rate.
C) slows the heart and respiratory rates.
D) dilates the blood vessels in the muscles.
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42. Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct?
A) The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.
B) Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive.
C) The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy
individuals.
D) 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic
drive.
43. The normal blood glucose level, as measured by a glucometer, is between:
A) 60 and 80 mg/dL.
B) 80 and 120 mg/dL.
C) 130 and 150 mg/dL.
D) 160 and 200 mg/dL.
44. When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be
to:
A) dilate.
B) not react.
C) become larger.
D) become smaller.
45. Neurogenic shock occurs when:
A) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
B) the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
C) there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
D) massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.
46. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:
A) assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
B) insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) line and infuse fluids.
C) administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.
D) interpret a basic electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.
47. Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
A) reassessing the nature of illness.
B) taking another set of vital signs.
C) repeating the primary assessment.
D) reviewing all treatment performed.
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48. The simplest yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease
is to:
A) undergo an annual physical examination.
B) ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.
C) wash your hands in between patient contacts.
D) undergo human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing at least twice a year.
49. You and your partner are dispatched to a residence for an “ill person.” When you arrive,
you find that the patient, a 44-year-old man, does not speak English. There are no
relatives or bystanders present who can act as an interpreter. You should:
A) give the patient oxygen, assess his vital signs, and transport him to the hospital in a
position of comfort.
B) speak to the patient with a moderately louder voice to facilitate his ability to
understand what you are saying.
C) use short, simple questions and point to specific parts of your body to try to
determine the source of the patient's complaint.
D) refrain from performing any assessment or treatment until you can contact
someone who can function as an interpreter.
50. Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic
injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then:
A) quickly gain access to the patient.
B) observe the scene for safety hazards.
C) determine if additional units are needed.
D) carefully assess the mechanism of injury.
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