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Final Exam
1.
A bleeding ulcer in either the stomach or small intestine that drips on other organs
would indicate that the ulceration has penetrated which tissue layer:
a.
endothelium
d.
serosa
b.
muscularis mucosae e.
mucosa
c.
submucosa
2.
After food is chewed and swallowed, the sequence of its
movement through the digestive tract is:
a.
esophagus, pyloric sphincter, stomach, cardiac sphincter, small intestine
b.
esophagus, pyloric sphincter, stomach, small intestine
c.
esophagus, stomach, pyloric sphincter, small intestine
d.
esophagus, stomach, duodenum, pyloric sphincter
e.
esophagus, cardiac sphincter, small intestine, pyloric sphincter
3.
The appendix is attached to the:
a.
colon d.
jejunum
b.
cecum e.
rectum
c.
ileum
4.
Which gland serves BOTH an endocrine and a digestive function?
a.
liver d.
pancreas
b.
thyroid e.
gall bladder
c.
adrenal
5.
The enzyme, found in saliva, that INITIATES chemical
digestion of polysaccharides is:
a.
pepsin d.
lipase
b.
trypsin e.
maltase
c.
amylase
6.
The cephalic phase of gastric secretion is mediated through:
a.
the sight & smell of food
d.
pancreozymin
b.
gastrin
e.
neutralization of HCl
c.
secretin
7.
The lacteal is a lymphatic channel important in the:
a.
development of spermatozoa d.
production of milk
b.
digestion of proteins
e.
absorption of fats
c.
manufacture of leukocytes
8.
Which organs are located in the mediastinum?
a.
lungs and esophagus d.
heart and stomach
b.
heart and trachea
e.
lungs and trachea
c.
trachea and thyroid gland
9.
Most foreign substances in inspired air do NOT reach the
lungs because of:
a.
rich blood supply of the nasal mucosa
b.
presence of the conchae
c.
porous construction of the nasal septum
d.
ciliated mucous lining in the nasopharynx
e.
respiratory passages are too small
10.
EXTERNAL respiration occurs in the:
a.
bronchi
d.
larynx
b.
alveoli
e.
pharynx
c.
trachea
11.
What is the proper sequence of events during inspiration?
a.
increase in intrapulmonic pressure, decrease in intrathoracic pressure,
relaxation of diaphragm and intercostal muscles
b.
increase in intrathoracic pressure, increase in intrapulmonic pressure,
contraction of intercostal muscles
c.
contraction of intercostal muscles and diaphragm, decrease in intrathoracic
pressure, decrease in intrapulmonic pressure
d.
relaxation of diaphragm, decrease in intrathoracic pressure, increase in
intrapulmonic pressure
e.
contraction of diaphragm and intercostal muscles, increase in intrathoracic
pressure, increase in intrapulmonic pressure
12.
The MOST effective stimulant of the respiratory center is a(n):
a.
increase in blood CO2
d.
decrease in blood O2
b.
decrease in blood CO2
e.
increase in blood pH
c.
increase in blood O2
13.
The sequence of blood flow in the circulatory system is:
a.
heart, arteries, venules, capillaries, veins, arterioles
b.
arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, heart
c.
heart, arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules
d.
veins, venules, heart, arteries, arterioles, capillaries
e.
heart, veins, venules, capillaries, arterioles, arteries
14.
The heart valves at the base of the pulmonary artery and the aorta are the:
a.
atrioventricular valves d.
tricuspid valves
b.
foramen ovale
e.
semilunar valves
c.
bicuspid valves
15.
Which system returns tissue fluid to the venous system,
filters the fluid, and forms certain body cells?
a.
urinary
d.
lymphatic
b.
cardiovascular e.
digestive
c.
endocrine
16.
Which represents the proper sequence of events in the
impulse pathway that results in normal cardiac rhythm?
a.
SA node to atrial muscle mass to AV node to AV bundle to Purkinje fibers
to ventricular muscle mass
b.
SA node to AV node to AV bundle to atrial muscle mass to Purkinje fibers
to ventricular muscle mass
c.
AV node to atrial muscle mass to SA node to Purkinje fibers to ventricular
muscle mass
d.
AV node to AV bundle to SA node to atrial muscle mass to ventricular
muscle mass
e.
SA node to atrial muscle mass to AV bundle to Purkinje fibers to AV node
to ventricular muscle mass
17.
The FIRST heart sound ("lubb") is produced by which event:
a.
the opening of the atrioventricular valves
b.
the closing of the atrioventricular valves
c.
the opening of the semilunar valves
d.
the closing of the semilunar valves
e.
the contraction of both atria
18.
Cardiac output INCREASES when:
a.
venous return to the heart increases
b.
sympathetic stimulation of the heart decreases
c.
parasympathetic stimulation of the heart increases
d.
cholinergic secretion increases
e.
respiratory rate decreases
19.
A pressure INCREASE in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch
will initiate impulses that will be sent to the:
a.
sinoatrial node to increase the heart rate
b.
thalamus to increase the heart rate
c.
cardioinhibitory center to decrease the heart rate
d.
atrioventricular node to decrease the heart rate
e.
cardio-acceleratory center to increase the heart rate
20.
Blood flow is SLOWEST within which vessel?
a.
venule d.
arteriole
b.
vein e.
capillary
c.
artery
21.
In a patient with an INCREASED tendency to form
intravascular thrombi, an accepted treatment is to:
a.
give injections of prothrombin
b.
administer controlled amounts of an anticoagulant
c.
perform surgery to remove affected blood vessels
d.
give injections of thromboplastin
e.
increase dietary intake of calcium
22.
Polycythemia involves an abnormal INCREASE in:
a.
erythrocytes d.
lymphocytes
b.
platelets
e.
leukocytes
c.
monocytes
23.
A blockage of the ureter would prevent the passage of urine
from the:
a.
kidney to the urinary bladder
b.
urinary bladder to the urethra
c.
cortex of the kidney to the medullary region
d.
glomerulus of Henle's loop
e.
proximal to the distal convoluted tubule
24.
Which is the CORRECT pathway of material through the nephron?
a.
Bowman's capsule, collecting tube, proximal convoluted tubule, Henle's
loop
b.
Bowman's capsule, Henle's loop, proximal convoluted tubule, collecting
tube
c.
Bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, Henle's loop, distal
convoluted tubule
d.
collecting tubule, Bowman's capsule, Henle's loop,
distal convoluted tubule
e.
glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, collecting tube, Henle's loop, distal
convoluted tubule
25.
Approximately how many LITERS of glomerular filtrate per day
can the kidneys form under normal conditions?
a.
1
d.
125
b.
10
e.
180
c.
70
26.
Which is the NORMAL sequence of events in the formation and excretion of
urine:
a.
secretion, filtration, reabsorption, micturition
b.
filtration, secretion, reabsorption, micturition
c.
filtration, reabsorption, secretion, micturition
d.
reabsorption, filtration, secretion, micturition
e.
27.
28.
micturition, filtration, reabsorption, secretion
Which is NOT considered to be a normal constituent of urine?
a.
urea
d.
ammonia
b.
creatine
e.
sodium
c.
albumin
The secretion of aldosterone will cause:
a.
a reabsorption of sodium by the renal tubules
b.
a decrease in the renal threshold level of potassium
c.
additional glucose to remain in the renal tubule
d.
the kidneys to release additional renin into the bloodstream
e.
a decrease water reabsorption by the renal tubules
29.
The hypothalamus is the region of the brain which produces secretions that
function as releasing factors for which gland:
a.
gonads
d.
parathyroid
b.
adrenal
e.
adenohypophysis
c.
neurohypophysis
30.
The tropic hormones (ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH) are secreted by the:
a.
hypothalamus d.
adrenal medulla
b.
hypophysis e.
gonads
c.
adrenal cortex
31.
The presence of ACTH causes which of the following:
a.
stimulation of the thyroid gland and the release of thyroxin
b.
inhibition of aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex
c.
stimulation of the adrenal cortex, causing the release of the
glucocorticoids
d.
inhibition of cortisone production by the adrenal cortex
e.
stimulation of the adrenal medulla, causing the release of epinephrine
32.
A marked DEFICIENCY of anterior pituitary secretion in a
growing child results in:
a.
acromegaly d.
cretinism
b.
dwarfism
e.
goiter
c.
gigantism
33.
Diabetes insipidus is due to a LACK of which secretion?
a.
antidiuretic hormone d.
oxytocin
b.
thyroxin
e.
insulin
c.
aldosterone
34.
are:
Two agents that have the OPPOSITE effects on bone and blood calcium levels
a.
b.
c.
e.
d.
calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
vitamin E and parathyroid hormone
insulin and glucagon
parathyroid and pituitary hormone
calcitonin and pituitary hormone
35.
HYPOSECRETION of insulin usually results in a:
a.
higher level of glucose in the blood and urine
b.
lower level of glucose in the blood and urine
c.
higher level of glucose in the blood and a lower level
in the urine
d.
lower level of glucose in the blood and a higher level
in the urine
e.
has no effect on glucose levels in the blood
36.
During times of stress, which hormone antagonizes the
effects of insulin?
a.
oxytocin
d.
vasopressin
b.
testosterone e.
epinephrine
c.
parathormone
37.
The gonad of the male is the:
a.
scrotum
d.
sperm
b.
testis
e.
glans
c.
penis
38.
The erectile tissue of the penis is composed mainly of:
a.
bone
d.
muscle
b.
cartilage
e.
small arterioles
c.
large venous sinusoids
39.
Spermatogenesis occurs in the:
a.
penis d.
seminiferous tubules
b.
epididymis
e.
vas deferens
c.
prostate
40.
Sperm cells develop from stem cells called:
a.
secondary spermatocytes
d.
haploid gametes
b.
granulosa cells e.
spermatogonia
c.
spermatozoa
41.
42.
The interstitial cells of Leydig secrete:
a.
inhibin d.
semen
b.
FSH e.
testosterone
c.
spermatozoa
Testes that FAIL to descend into the scrotum by the time of puberty:
a.
can usually produce normal sperm cells
b.
can usually secrete male sex hormones
c.
are less likely to become cancerous than testes that descend normally
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
43.
Which of the following structures are NOT completely
contained in the scrotum?
a.
seminiferous tubules d.
testes
b.
epididymis
e.
interstitial cells
c.
vas deferens
44.
Before the sperm are ejaculated they are STORED in the:
a.
vas deferens d.
seminiferous tubules
b.
rete testis
e.
epididymis
c.
seminal vesicles
45.
The conducting tube that carries sperm FROM the scrotum
INTO the pelvic cavity is the:
a.
vas deferens d.
epididymis
b.
ejaculatory duct
e.
seminal vesicle
c.
mediastinum
46.
MOST of the semen volume is accounted for by:
a.
the sperm cells themselves
b.
secretions of the seminal vesicles
c.
secretions of small glands in the walls of the conducting tubes
d.
secretions of the bulbourethral glands
e.
secretions from the testes
47.
A secretion that helps to maintain motility of spermatozoa is produced by the:
a.
seminiferous tubules d.
vas deferens
b.
prostate gland e.
Cowper's glands
c.
epididymis
48.
The external genitalia of the female are collectively called the:
a.
gonads d.
vulva
b.
vagina e.
clitoris
c.
ovaries
49.
The region BETWEEN the vaginal orifice and the anus is the:
a.
mons pubis d.
hymen
b.
labia majora e.
vestibule
c.
perineum
50.
Where is the uterus situated?
a.
below the urinary bladder
b.
between the rectum and the urinary bladder
c.
anterior to the urinary bladder
d.
posterior to the rectum
e.
lateral to the ovaries
51.
The LOWERMOST portion of the uterus is called the:
a.
vulva d.
vestibule
b.
fundus e.
cervix
c.
vagina
52.
A follicle releases an egg into the:
a.
uterus d.
Fallopian tube
b.
corpus luteum e.
ovary
c.
vagina
53.
The process of fertilization normally occurs in the:
a.
cervix d.
vagina
b.
uterus e.
ovary
c.
Fallopian tube
54.
The white scar tissue in the ovary representing a former
site of ovulation is called the:
a.
corpus hemorrhagicum
d.
corpus albicans
b.
corpus luteum e.
corpus spongiosum
c.
corpus oogonium
55.
The normal delay in sexual development until puberty is attributed to:
a.
lack of hypothalamic stimulation of gonadotropin release
b.
inability of the pituitary to synthesize gonadotropins
c.
failure of the gonads to respond to gonadotropins
d.
lack of effect of sex hormones on somatic tissue
e.
inability of the pituitary to respond to hypothalamic releasing factors
56.
Estrogens are produced in the nonpregnant body PRIMARILY by the:
a.
corpus callosum
d.
corpus albicans
b.
corpus luteum
e.
Graafian follicle
c.
placenta
57.
58.
Progesterone is secreted by which structure?
a.
corpus albicans
d.
corpus luteum
b.
Graafian follicle
e.
uterine endometrium
c.
corpus hemorrhagicum
Estrogen and progesterone are produced in all of the
following tissues EXCEPT:
a.
ovary
d.
mammary glands
b.
corpus luteum e.
none of the above
c.
placenta
59.
The ONSET of puberty in females is marked by:
a.
sexual maturity
d.
breast growth
b.
growth of axillary hair
e.
the menarche
c.
an increased sex drive
60.
Ovulation is brought on by an INCREASE in:
a.
estrogen
d.
LH
b.
FSH
e.
progesterone
c.
testosterone
61.
An acid environment of the vagina:
a.
is fatal to sperm
b.
is beneficial to sperm
c.
causes sperm to be more motile
d.
is essential for conception to occur
e.
allows for a more intense orgasm
62.
Conception occurs:
a.
whenever ejaculation occurs
b.
anytime that intercourse occurs
c.
when a sperm fertilizes and egg
d.
when two people want it to occur
e.
when lots of alcohol is involved
63.
"Fertilization" refers to the:
a.
fusion of egg and sperm cytoplasm
b.
formation of egg membrane
c.
fusion of egg and sperm nuclei
d.
maturation of gametes
e.
fusion of egg and sperm membrane
64.
Implantation occurs during which week of the developing embryo?
a.
1st week
d.
4th week
b.
2nd week
e.
5th week
c.
3rd week
65.
Which stage in the development of an embryo is considered
to be the MOST advanced?
a.
ovum d.
blastocyst
b.
morula e.
secondary oocyte
c.
zygote
66.
Which hormone is MOST effective at the time of labor and intense rhythmical
contractions of the myometrium of the uterus?
a.
estrogen
d.
LH
b.
oxytocin
e.
prolactin
c.
progesterone
67.
At birth, prolactin secretion is INITIATED because of the:
a.
sucking action of the infant
b.
decrease in oxytocin levels
c.
decrease in progesterone levels
d.
all the above
e.
none of the above
68.
Milk production takes place several days after birth due
to an INCREASED secretion of which hormone?
a.
estrogen
d.
oxytocin
b.
prolactin
e.
FSH
c.
progesterone
69.
Normal human sperm cells contain:
a.
about half as much genetic material as body cells
b.
22 unpaired autosomes
c.
either an X chromosome or a Y chromosome
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
70.
A change in the structure of a DNA molecule is called:
a.
replication
d.
a transfer
b.
evolution
e.
homologous
c.
a mutation